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[Front]

Laboratories that work with moderate risk pathogens are classified as A) BSL-1. B) BSL-2. C) BSL-3. D) BSL-4.

[Back]

B) BSL-2.

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Test bank chap 27 - Details

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1) Chapter 1 View

Questions:

77 questions

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Laboratories that work with moderate risk pathogens are classified as A) BSL-1. B) BSL-2. C) BSL-3. D) BSL-4.

B) BSL-2.

Bacteremia is a term used A) to indicate the presence of bacteria in the blood. B) synonymously with septicemia. C) when the same organism is isolated from more than one site. D) to indicate the presence of bacteria in the lungs.

A) to indicate the presence of bacteria in the blood.

Which of the following must be accomplished FIRST in order to conduct RT-PCR? A) Complementary DNA must be synthesized from double-stranded DNA. B) Complementary DNA must be synthesized from RNA. C) Complementary DNA must be synthesized from proteins. D) Complementary DNA must be synthesized from single-stranded DNA.

B) Complementary DNA must be synthesized from RNA.

The most common of all nosocomial infections are ________ infections. A) blood B) reproductive tract C) urinary tract D) respiratory tract

C) urinary tract

MacConkey agar and eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar are ________ media. A) selective but not differential B) differential but not selective C) both selective and differential D) neither selective nor differential

C) both selective and differential

An Etest® is a clinical tool used for the determination of A) enteric presence. B) Escherichia coli O157:H7 presence. C) the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) value of an antimicrobial agent. D) pathogenic enzyme activity.

C) the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) value of an antimicrobial agent.

The component that enriches chocolate agar is A) chocolate. B) methyl brown indicator dye. C) heat-lysed blood cells. D) None of the answers are correct.

C) heat-lysed blood cells.

Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar A) incorporates antibiotics into the medium. B) enhances the growth of normal flora. C) prevents the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, but promotes the growth of Neisseria meningitidis. D) prevents the growth of Neisseria meningitides, but promotes the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

A) incorporates antibiotics into the medium.

The oxygen-free gas commonly employed during anoxic incubation of a bacterial culture is a mixture of A) nitrogen and carbon dioxide. B) nitrogen and carbon monoxide. C) nitrogen and argon. D) nitrogen and hydrogen.

A) nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

Which type of medium typically contains an indicator dye? A) selective but not differential B) differential but not selective C) both selective and differential D) neither selective nor differential

B) differential but not selective

Some antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis by disruption of translation through interactions with the A) ribosome. B) protein. C) DNA. D) chromosome.

A) ribosome.

The disk-diffusion test is used for A) assessing antimicrobial activity. B) the identification of Escherichia coli. C) the identification of viral plaques. D) the detection of antigen.

A) assessing antimicrobial activity.

Which of the following immunological tests would allow the specific identification of a microorganism directly in a patient specimen? A) fluorescent antibody (FA) B) radioimmunoassay (RIA) C) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (EIA) D) agglutination

A) fluorescent antibody (FA)

EMB agar preferentially selects for the growth of ________ bacteria. A) gram-positive B) gram-negative C) gram-variable D) both gram-positive and gram-negative

B) gram-negative

Latex bead agglutination tests are A) rapid and reliable tests used for the detection of certain bacteria as well as certain serum antibodies. B) inferior tests used in developing countries not having facilities for more reliable assays. C) an integral part of the EIA test procedure. D) too expensive for routine use.

A) rapid and reliable tests used for the detection of certain bacteria as well as certain serum antibodies.

The first antibiotic to be characterized was a A) cephalosporin. B) quinolone. C) β-lactam. D) macrolide.

C) β-lactam.

One advantage of the fluorescent antibodies that permits disease diagnosis long before primary isolation techniques yield results is that A) cross-reactions do not occur. B) few controls are required. C) nonspecific staining does not occur. D) it may be applied directly to tissue.

D) it may be applied directly to tissue.

Which of the following is a mechanism of aminoglycosides? A) inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis B) prevention of peptidoglycan crosslinking C) inhibition of DNA replication D) targeting the 30S ribosomal subunit

D) targeting the 30S ribosomal subunit

Which of the following would be useful for treating Candida? A) an azole B) a fusion inhibitor C) a macrolide D) a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

A) an azole

The blotting of proteins from polyacrylamide gels to nitrocellulose paper, and the subsequent identification by specific antibodies, is called a(n) ________ blot. A) Western B) Eastern C) Southern D) Northern

A) Western

Widespread antimicrobial drug resistance is usually passed by A) heterologous gene expression. B) reverse transcription. C) horizontal gene transfer. D) gene splicing.

C) horizontal gene transfer.

Most drug-resistant bacteria isolated from patients contain a(n) A) R plasmid. B) T1 phage. C) reverse transcriptase. D) β-lactam.

A) R plasmid.

Antibody titer can be measured by A) negative microscopy. B) agglutination. C) plate counts done after isolating the pathogen. D) polymerase chain reaction.

B) agglutination.

Compared with other precipitation tests, agglutination tests are A) more sensitive. B) less sensitive. C) about equally sensitive. D) highly variable in sensitivity, and thus the sensitivities cannot be compared.

A) more sensitive.

Blood agar is an example of a(n) ________ medium. A) selective B) general-purpose C) enrichment D) differential

B) general-purpose

Common contaminants in blood drawn from a vein include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Coryneform bacteria C) Propionibacteria D) Escherichia coli

D) Escherichia coli

Intestinal parasites can be identified by observing stool samples for the presence of A) cysts. B) antibodies. C) LPS. D) blood.

A) cysts.

Chocolate agar is an example of a ________ medium. A) selective B) general-purpose C) nonselective enriched D) differential

C) nonselective enriched

A laboratory in which Ebola virus is studied would be classified as a BSL-________ laboratory. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

D) 4

The tuberculin skin test looks to identify ________ specific to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A) antibodies B) antigens C) delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TH1 cells D) delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TC cells

C) delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TH1 cells

Which of the following is a cause of drug-specific resistance in disease-causing organisms? A) inappropriate hygiene B) nosocomial infection C) poor immunity D) indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobials

D) indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobials

Which of the following is a novel antimicrobial target? A) disruption of lipid biosynthesis B) inhibition of protein synthesis C) inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis D) inhibition of peptidoglycan crosslinking

A) disruption of lipid biosynthesis

The basis for blood typing is referred to as A) neutralization. B) hemagglutination. C) immunodiffusion. D) precipitation.

B) hemagglutination.

Which bacterium shows a characteristic green sheen when grown on eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar? A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella enterica C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus pyogenes

A) Escherichia coli

Protein A, commonly used in immunoblots, is derived from A) Staphylococcus. B) Escherichia. C) Bacillus. D) Clostridium.

A) Staphylococcus.

Two common or important bacterial pathogens found in the blood are A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Escherichia coli. B) Enterobacter and Proteus. C) Shigella and Salmonella. D) HIV and Escherichia coli.

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Escherichia coli.

A gram-negative, oxidase-positive diplococcus growing on chocolate agar likely belongs to the genus A) Neisseria. B) Escherichia. C) Mycobacterium. D) Pseudomonas.

A) Neisseria.

________, periodic reports on the susceptibility of clinically isolated organisms to the antibiotics in current local use, are particularly valuable for tracking the emergence of new antibiotic-resistant strains of pathogens. A) Antibiotic susceptibility plates B) Antibiograms C) Direct agglutination reports D) Histograms

B) Antibiograms

________ defines the lowest quantity of an antigen that can be detected in a serological test. A) Specificity B) Antigenic capacity C) Minimal inhibitory concentration D) Sensitivity

D) Sensitivity

Which of the following prevents supercoiling of bacterial DNA? A) macrolides B) quinolones C) penicillins D) cephalosporins

B) quinolones

In the United States, every clinical and research institution requires that workers be protected from ________ that is contracted almost exclusively from handling patient specimens (rather than from known exposure or accidents). A) anthrax B) hepatitis B C) drug-resistant mycobacteria D) influenza

B) hepatitis B

The use of selected culture media and incubation conditions to isolate microorganisms from samples is known as a(n) A) differential culture. B) selective culture. C) enrichment culture. D) sensitive culture.

C) enrichment culture.

How is drug-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae treated? A) with penicillinase-resistant β-lactams B) with tetracycline C) with synthetic analogs of tetracycline D) with vancomycin

A) with penicillinase-resistant β-lactams

An important intestinal pathogen generally acquired from contaminated food or water is A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) Ebola virus. D) Escherichia coli O157:H7.

D) Escherichia coli O157:H7.

Obligately anaerobic normal flora are found in ________, which is an/are anoxic habitat(s) of the body. A) the kidneys B) the skin C) portions of the oral cavity D) the lungs

C) portions of the oral cavity

A positive antibody titer indicates A) previous exposure to an antigen. B) active infection. C) latent disease. D) a healthy individual.

A) previous exposure to an antigen.

Methylene blue in EMB agar is selective for A) gram-positives. B) gram-negatives. C) viral plaques. D) both gram-positives and gram-negatives.

B) gram-negatives.

The study of antigen-antibody reactions is known as A) serology. B) immunology. C) toxicology. D) epidemiology.

A) serology.

Indirect EIA is used to detect A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) viruses. D) serum.

B) antibodies.

Protein A has a strong affinity for A) antigen. B) blood. C) protein. D) antibody.

D) antibody.

________ is used to monitor gene expression of a pathogen. A) Reverse transcription PCR B) Serology C) Antigen capture assay D) Qualitative PCR

A) Reverse transcription PCR

Hybridization requires a nucleic acid probe that binds to DNA or RNA of interest, which must be in the ________ form for hybridization to occur. A) single-stranded B) double-stranded C) oligomerized D) polymerized

A) single-stranded

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits RNA synthesis? A) penicillin B) erythromycin C) rifampin D) azithromycin

C) rifampin

A mechanism for penicillin resistance in bacteria is A) acetylation of the antibiotic. B) phosphorylation of the antibiotic. C) confirmation change of the antibiotic. D) splitting the β-lactam ring of the antibiotic.

D) splitting the β-lactam ring of the antibiotic.

SYBR Green, commonly used in qPCR, binds nonspecifically to A) ssDNA B) dsDNA C) ssRNA D) dsRNA

B) dsDNA

The causal agents of urinary tract diseases are often members of the normal flora.

Answer: TRUE

Finding no bacterial growth, despite persistent urinary tract symptoms, indicates that the problem is likely either non-pathogenically physiological or psychosomatic.

Answer: FALSE

In cases of suspected foodborne or waterborne infections, fecal samples should be inoculated into a variety of selective media.

Answer: TRUE

Hydrogen sulfide production is assayed by growth in a medium containing ferric iron (Fe3+).

Answer: TRUE

The EIA test for HIV infection is a direct test for HIV envelope proteins.

Answer: FALSE

In the EIA test for HIV infection, the microtiter plate is coated with disrupted HIV particles.

Answer: TRUE

MOST microbiology research laboratories maintain BSL-2 standards.

Answer: TRUE

Many pathogens can be readily grown in laboratory culture.

Answer: TRUE

ALL positive HIV-EIA tests must be confirmed by another independent test, usually the HIV Western blot.

Answer: TRUE

Salmonella is commonly associated with wound infections.

Answer: FALSE

Gram stain smears of urethral exudates for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are highly specific.

Answer: TRUE

Nucleic acid probes are NOT suitable for the detection of viruses.

Answer: FALSE

One problem with the EIA test is the disposal of radioactive wastes.

Answer: FALSE

When using the EIA test for HIV screening, BOTH false negative and false positive results are possible.

Answer: TRUE

Chitin is found ONLY in fungi and insects.

Answer: TRUE

At this time, EIA tests are too difficult for routine diagnoses.

Answer: FALSE

Nucleic acid probes and immunological reagents are NOT commonly used in the clinical laboratory for the diagnosis of viral disease, because the cultivation of the virus is often difficult or even impossible.

Answer: FALSE

Some infectious agents, such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae, do NOT elicit a systemic immune response.

Answer: TRUE

Fluorescent antibodies can be used to separate mixtures of cells into relatively pure populations with a fluorescence cytometer.

Answer: TRUE

To detect antibodies in human serum, the direct EIA is most commonly employed.

Answer: FALSE

Literally hundreds of clinically useful EIAs have been developed.

Answer: TRUE

Interferons promote viral replication.

Answer: FALSE